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If God said ”I will not share my glory with others” (Isa 42.8; 48.11) why did Jesus and Paul later say the exact opposite (John 17.22; Romans 8.30b)?
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7 comments
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God is a Trinity. 1 being, 3 persons. None is like Him. So… all 3 persons have the same glory because they have the same divine being. Ain’t the same as sharing glory with another being.
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What is the reason you think that?
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That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
John 17:21-22The Son and the Father are one, therefore the Father hasn’t given His Glory to another.
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Looking at it in that light is looking at the passages out of context, the one doesn’t have anything to do with the other
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He is not sharing his glory to other gods and man. Surprisingly, this is the same God (Father) who called the son (Jesus) God in hebrews 1:8.
Which makes very clear that he is refering to created beinga not to the other divine persons; the Son and Holy Spirit.Therefore, the New testament doctrine doesn’t contradict the theology of the Father.
Another example is Psalm 110, the Lord (Yahweh Elohim) said to my Lord (Adonai). And we know that Lord is David Shephred in Psalm 23.
It very clear that God is reffering to created beings such as humans and angelic.Our Lord Jesus said he has the glory with the Father from the very begening. John 17:1 and the Father glorfy the Son John 17:22.
Therefore; New testament and verses you posted is not cradictions, rather these verse are emphasis on Christ Divinity.
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