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Timothy,

Thanks for he correction, you are right of course. You response highlights what I was trying to get at… namely are there a clear grammatical reasons for the way Paul constructs this passage or is do we have to rely more on logical inference for the antecedents? I am not sufficiently familiar with relative pronoun constructions to know if this is a typical structure. My observation for what its worth (very little probably) is that Paul has opted for a certain amount of rhetorical beauty and balance, a sort of aesthetic quality for effect, almost poetic! Obviously the over all context makes it clear what he means.

Paul Evans
Wilmington, NC

Statistics: Posted by Paul Evans — October 19th, 2013, 9:35 am


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Keith Yoder » August 27th, 2013, 4:32 am Do we not have a word play on the name Παῦλος (“Paul”) in the final phrase of James 3:16? πᾶν φαῦλον πρᾶγμα (“every worthless thing”) => πᾶν Παῦλον πρᾶγμα (“every Paul-ish thing”)If the name “Paul” appeared within close textual context of James 3:16, a word play would be […]

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