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First of all, I’m a believer so not trying to have a fight here. I have a question I saw on earlier post on another board I believe that got eaten up by athiest. Hopefully, an apologetics person can help… Why is 2 kings 19 and Isiah 37 the same exact passage word for word???

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Persistent thoughts: “God’s word? It’s just a collection of texts, assembled by the most dominant church fathers. In other words, even if the texts are inspired, the canon is the intentional work of man, right? Why then, should you believe any doctrine derived from it?”