In my previous OP, I wrote, “Does anyone else find…

In my previous OP, I wrote, “Does anyone else find it interesting that often times the God-inspired New Testament writers would “quote”/paraphrase or refer to an Old Testament passage of Scripture to “fit” the exegesis of the verse(s) they are writing – regardless of “proper” grammar, syntax, language rules, etc.

For example… And I can’t believe I overlooked this one: Romans 10:8-14 But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart” (that is, the word of faith which we preach):

9 that >>>if you confess with your mouth ***the Lord Jesus*** and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved [immediately!].<<< 10 For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. 11 For the Scripture says, >>>“Whoever believes on ***Him [Jesus – context from verse 9]*** will not be put to shame.”<<< 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek, for >>>the same ***Lord [Jesus – context from verses 9 & 11]***over all is rich to all who ^^^call upon Him [Jesus – context from verses 9, 11 & 12a]^^^<<<. 13 For >>>“whoever ^^^calls on the name of ***the Lord [Jesus – context from verses 9, 11, 12a & 12b]***^^^shall be saved.”<<< 14 >>>How then shall they ^^^call on Him [Jesus – context from verses 9, 11, 12a, 12b & 13]^^^ in whom they have not believed?<<< And >>>how shall they believe in Him [Jesus – context from verses 9, 11,12a, 12b, 13 & 14a] of whom they have not heard?<<< And how shall they hear without a preacher? In Romans 10:13, Paul took a quote from Joel 2:32a (And it shall come to pass *That* whoever calls on the name of the LORD {aka YHWH} shall be saved.) and adapted it to "fit" the context in order for Jesus to be the Lord (aka YHWH) to whom we are to call on in order to be saved!

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